Let $X$ and $Y$ be i.i.d. random variables with common CDF(F) and PDF(f) and let $Z_1=\max(X,Y)$ and $Z_2= \min(X,Y)$, then what are the CDFs of $Z_1$ and $Z_2$?
I think both should be $F^2(z)$, but my friend disagreed with me in the CDF of $Z_2$. Is the CDF of Z a kind of joint distribution of X and Y? I cannot see clearly the relations between them.
Proceed by definition.
$Z_1$ is the maximum of $X$ and $Y$. Therefore, if it is smaller than some quantity, then both $X$ and $Y$ are smaller than that quantity. More rigorously, $$ \forall x \quad Z_1 \leq x \iff X \leq x \textrm{ and } Y \leq x $$ Hence, the probabilities of the LHS and RHS occuring are the same. But the LHS is true with probability $F_{Z_1}(x)$, and the RHS is true with probability $F_X(x)F_Y(x) = F^2(x)$. Hence, it follows that: $$ \bbox[yellow, 5px , border:2px solid red] {F_{Z_1}(x) = F^2(x)} $$
By differentiating the CDF(if possible), one obtains the PDF of $Z_1$.
Now, note that an inverse relationship occurs with $Z_2$: $$ \forall x \quad Z_1 \geq x \iff X \geq X \textrm{ and } Y \geq x $$
Now, the probability of the left hand side occuring is $1 - F_{Z_2}(x)$, and the probability of the right hand side occuring is $(1 - F(x))^2$.
Hence, it follows that: $$ \bbox[yellow,5px,border:2px solid red] {F_{Z_2}(x) = 1 - (1 - F(x))^2} $$
From the above, the PDF of $F_{Z_2}$ should again be calculable by differentiation.