I'm having trouble understanding why one (or both) of my methods is wrong. Here is the problem.
Let's say I have 6 dice: 2 yellow, 2 green, 2 red. I'm going to draw 3 dice from the 6 dice, and I want to know the chance that I draw one of each colour. Here is the first method that I think is correct:
I number each dice 1 to 6. I figure out every combination of 3 numbers from the 6 numbers. I translate the numbers back into colours. Since there are pairs of numbers that are the same colour, I then go through the list counting the permutations, so I end up with a list of unique combinations of 3 colours. I get 7 combinations:
RRG x 2
RRY x 2
RGG x 2
RGY x 8
RYY x 2
GGY x 2
GYY x 2
Now, here's the first method I use to calculate the chance of drawing, say, RYG: $P(RYG) = \frac{2}{6}\frac{2}{5}\frac{2}{4}(duplicates) = \frac{1}{15}2=0.0666$
Here's the second method: There are 20 total combinations and 8 of them are RYG, so surely $P(RRG)=2/5=0.4$
Now, I'm certain that my work here is so sloppy that it makes your skin crawl. I admit I'm fumbling about here. Sorry. If someone can point me in the right direction, I'd appreciate it.
You have all of the combinations correct, so you're basically there.
There are $8$ ways to draw one of each color (you wrote "$RGY \times 8$"). (Choose which of two yellows, choose which of two reds, and choose which of two greens.) There are $_6C_3 = 20$ total ways to draw three dice from six. (You instead wrote all of the combinations explicitly, for which the total is $20$.)
Hence your probability for drawing one of each color with your three is $P = \frac{8}{20} = 0.4$.
Another way to look at it is to take $1$ minus the probability that you don't get one of each color. You have that information too; there are $12$ combinations that have a repeated color.
The answer is the same:
$$P = 1 - \frac{12}{20} = 0.4.$$