There are $\binom42 = 6$ different ways to arrange the two desired rolls in a sequence of $4$ dice, and $6^2$ possible results for the remaining two dice. There are $6^4$ possible total outcomes, so the odds of getting a 1 and a 6 should be $6^3/6^4 = 1/6$, but I get the feeling this is not correct. I think my logic is flawed because I am double-counting some configurations somewhere, but I don't know how to do the computation correctly.
2026-03-29 03:45:08.1774755908
What are the odds of rolling a 1 and a 6 in four dice throws?
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There are $6^4$ rolls, of which $5^4$ have no $1$'s and $5^4$ have no $6$'s. However, we've counted the rolls with neither $1$'s nor $6$'s twice. The probability of both a $1$ and a $6$ is $$\frac{6^4-2\cdot5^4+4^4}{6^4}=\frac{151}{648}\approx.23302469$$