What can we conclude from $f(x+1)=f(x)$ for all $x\in \mathbb R$.

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I am solving CMI PHD questions.One of the questions from real analysis is as follows:

Question

Let $f:\mathbb {R\to R}$ be a function such that $f(x+1)=f(x)$ for all $x\in \mathbb R$,then which of the following are true:

$(a) f$ is bounded.

$(b)f$ is bounded if it is continuous.

$(c)f$ is differentiable if it is continuous.

$(d)f$ is uniformly continuous if it is continuous.

My answer to this question is as follows:

Take $f(x)=\sec(2\pi x)$ and assign $0$ value to points where it is undefined to show that $(a)$ is false.Then $(b)$ is true because $f$ is $1$-periodic and hence $f(\mathbb R)=f([0,1])$ which is bounded if $f$ is continuous.For disproving $(c)$ take the function $g(x)=\frac{1}{2} |x|$ on $[\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2}]$ and replicate it periodically on $\mathbb R$.Finally $(d)$ is true because any periodic continuous function is uniformly continuous.

Is my solution correct?