Consider a relation R: A → A which is both symmetric and transitive.
The following proof shows that the relation is also reflexive: Take a ∈ A. If a ∼ b then b ∼ a by symmetry, and hence a ∼ a by transitivity. Therefore, the relation is reflexive."
Is the proof correct or not?
I think it is incorrect. I think it should be "For every a ∈ A, there exists b ∈ A that a ~ b and b ~ a.", not just "Take a ∈ A". After that we can use symmetry and transitivity to prove it is reflexive. That is what I think.
Am I right? Or what is the correct answer and the reason? THANKS!
If $\sim$ is symmetric and transitive, then $a\sim b$ and $b\sim a$ implies $a\sim a$. However, as you say, this presumes the existence of some such $b$. In general, symmetric and transitive do not imply reflexive.
You can make a sort of silly counterexample by just defining $\sim$ on a set. Take the set $\{x,y\}$ and the relation containing only $x\sim x$. This is not reflexive since $y\not\sim y$.