There's a question: From $p$ and $p\implies q$, infer $q$. In my book, this is solved algebraically like this:
Given premises:
$$P1: p$$
$$P2: p\implies q$$
Conclusion to be drawn: $q$
$$\therefore P1 \bullet P2 \implies C$$
$$= [p.(p\implies q)] \implies q$$
$$= [p.(\bar p + q)] \implies q$$
$$= (p \bullet \bar p + p \bullet q) \implies q$$
$$= (0 + p \bullet q) \implies q$$
Carrying out conditional elimination again,
$$(\bar{p+q})+q$$
$$=\bar p + \bar q + q$$
$$=\bar p +1$$
$$=1$$
Hence the result is established.
Now my question is what do we mean when we are here trying to draw conclusion $q$? And what does $1$ as the final result signify?
2026-04-01 05:38:24.1775021904
What do we mean when we say 'From $p$ and $p\implies q$, infer $q$'?
589 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
1
The letters $p, q$ stand for propositions. So, for example, take
Then your derivation entails
The calculation as shown reduces \begin{align*} (p \text{ and } p \Rightarrow q) \Rightarrow q \end{align*} to $1$, i.e. to true so that above rule always holds.