I am reading about stochastic process, but could not make sense if one equation I encountered. Can anyone help me understand it?
The equation states that suppose R(s) is an interest rate process, then the discount process is $D(t)=e^{- \int_0^t R(s)ds} $.
Suppose R(t)=W(t) is a simple Brownian motion, what does $\int_0^t R(s)ds$ mean? Is it a Lebesgue integral? Or is it an Ito's integral? How to interpret it intuitively?
This is from chapter 5 of Shreve's stochastic calculus for finance, equation 5.2.17 on page 215.
Since Brownian Motion has continuous paths with probability 1 thus$\int_{0}^{t} W_s ds$ is well define. Now set $f(x)=x^3$. By application of Ito's lemma, we have $$f(W_t)=f(W_0)+\int_{0}^{t}f'(W_s)dW_s+\frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{t}f''(W_s)ds$$ $$W^3(t)=3\int_{0}^{t}W^2_s\,dW_s+3\int_{0}^{t}W_sds$$ therefore $$\int_{0}^{t}W_sds=\frac{1}{3}W^3(t)-\int_{0}^{t}W^2_s\,dW_s$$
Note
The Itô integral can be defined in a manner similar to the Riemann–Stieltjes integral, that is as a limit in probability of Riemann sums; such a limit does not necessarily exist pathwise. Suppose that $W_t$ is a Wiener process and that $X_t$ is a right-continuous (cadlag), adapted and locally bounded process if $I=\{t_0,t_1,\cdots,t_n\}$ is a sequence of partitions of $[0,t]$ with mesh going to zero, then the Itô integral of $X_t$ with respect to $W_t$ up to time t is a random variable $$\int_{0}^{t}X_sdW_s=\underset{n\to \infty }{\mathop{\lim }}\,\sum\limits_{i=1}^{n}{X({{t}_{i-1}})(W({{t}_{i}})-W({{t}_{i-1}})})$$ Set $X_s=W^2_s$, we have $$\int_{0}^{t}W^2_sdW_s=\underset{n\to \infty }{\mathop{\lim }}\,\sum\limits_{i=1}^{n}{W^2({{t}_{i-1}})(W({{t}_{i}})-W({{t}_{i-1}})})$$ Edit \begin{eqnarray} \int_{0}^t W_s \,ds & = & \int_0^t \int_0^t \mathbf{1}_{[0,s]} (u) \,dW_u \,ds \\ & = & \int_0^t \int_0^t \mathbf{1}_{[0,s]} (u) \,ds \,dW_u\\ & = & \int_0^t (t-u) \,dW_u\\ \end{eqnarray} Indeed $$\int_{0}^{t}{{{W}_{s}}}ds\sim N\left( 0\,,\,\frac{1}{3}{{t}^{3}} \right)$$