What I did was to see that the function is behaving as a straight line with gradient $3$ at infinity which implies that the function has an oblique asymptote as $x \to \infty$ but my testing portal says the answer is wrong and that instead, the function is infinite of order $1$ with respect to $x$. I think both of these are correct otherwise I must be confusing terminologies here
2026-02-22 19:08:49.1771787329
What does $\lim\limits_{x \to \infty} f'(x)=3$ mean?
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Note that in order to have a oblique asymptotes
with
$$m=\lim_{x\rightarrow+\infty}\frac{f(x)}{x}$$
and
$$n=\lim_{x\rightarrow+\infty} (f(x)-mx)$$
both limit must exist.
Note that since the function is evantually strictly increasing $f(x)\to +\infty$ thus
$$\lim_{x\rightarrow+\infty}\frac{f(x)}{x}= \lim_{x\rightarrow+\infty}f'(x)=3$$
thus $f(x)=\mathcal O(x)$.