I have on a textbook a system of two ODEs as follow
$$\dfrac{df}{dx}=af(x)g(x)\\ \dfrac{dg}{dx}=-bg(x)$$
So, the author studies $df/dg$ writing $\dfrac{df}{dg}=-\dfrac{a}{b}f(x)$.
I understand the arithmetic, but I am not sure of mathemathical/geometric meaning.
Thank you in advance for light and maybe some lemmas or theorems of reference that it is valuable (are when is valuable).
I have ranted numerous times on this site about that horrendous notation. It really means nothing and can be very misleading. I would suggest you write $$\frac{df}{dx} = af(x)g(x) = -\frac ab f(x)\frac{dg}{dx},$$ and then divide by $f(x)$ to get $$\frac1{f(x)}\frac{df}{dx} = -\frac ab \frac{dg}{dx}.$$ Now integrate both sides (with respect to $x$) and you get $$\ln |f(x)| = -\frac ab g(x) + c.$$ [You could write the previous equation as $\frac{df}f = -\frac ab dg$, and then you get where your textbook should end up.]