Define a series: $f(n) = \frac{1}{n^2}$ where $n$ is a natural number. This series converges to $0$.
Now, consider the series $S(n) = \sum\limits_{i=0}^n f(i)$. This is the Reimann Zeta function evaluated at $2$ and it converges to $\frac{\pi^2}{6}$.
Now consider the series $R(n) = \sum\limits_{i=0}^n S(i)$. Does this converge to anything? If so, what does it converge to?
And if $R(n)$ diverges, what about $R_k(n)$ where we start with $f(n) = \frac{1}{n^k}$ instead? At what value of $k$ will we get convergence?
My attempt:
I managed to establish that
$$R(n) = \sum\limits_{i=1}^n \frac{(n-i+1)}{i^2} = n \sum\limits_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{i^2}-\sum\limits_{i=1}^n\frac{1}{i}+\sum\limits_{i=1}^n\frac{1}{i^2} = n \sum\limits_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{i^2}-\sum\limits_{i=1}^n\frac{1}{i}+\frac{\pi^2}{6}$$
With the first two terms, we get an $\infty - \infty$ form which is indeterminate. It seems like the first sum should overpower the second one. This is because the first one is linear is $n$ while the second one is logarithmic. Not sure if this argument is precise enough. And now what about the $k$ for which $R_k(n)$ converges?
Your series doesn't exist. This is because the summand approaches $\frac{\pi^2}6$ and not $0$. Same thing for all $k$, the summand of $R_k$ will approach $\zeta(k)>1$.