I have a problem I do not find a solution. Given two series $\left(a_n\right)_{n \in \mathbf{Z}}$ and $\left(b_n\right)_{n \in \mathbf{Z}}$ which have a cauchy product $\left(c_n\right)_{n \in \mathbf{Z}} = \left(\sum_{i \in \mathbf{Z}}{a_i b_{n-i}}\right)_{n \in \mathbf{Z}}$ and $\forall n,\sum_{i\in\mathbf{Z}}{\left|a_ib_{n-i}\right|}<\infty$.
Do $\left(c_n\right)_{n \in \mathbf{Z}}=0$ implies $\left(a_n\right)_{n \in \mathbf{Z}}=0$ or $\left(b_n\right)_{n \in \mathbf{Z}}=0$?
It is true if $\exists n_0, \forall n<n_0, a_n=0$ (like in traditional formal Laurent series). I can not find a demonstration or a counterexample for the general case.
Just look at some Fourier series (two functions with product zero), and use their coefficients. Example: $$ a_0 = \frac{1}{2},\qquad a_{n} = \frac{1}{\pi i n}, n \text{ odd}, \qquad a_n = 0, \text{otherwise} $$
$$ b_0 = \frac{1}{2},\qquad b_{n} = \frac{-1}{\pi i n}, n \text{ odd}, \qquad b_n = 0, \text{otherwise} $$