What is happening when I do an indirect approach to multiply a scalar with a trignometric function and get an accurate result?

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So here is what I am doing:
I have ($ 215 \times \sin 22^\circ $) which has the correct answer $ \rightarrow 80.5404 \approx 81 $



Now I perform the following procedure:

$ \sin 22^\circ $ is not known, but it lies between $ \sin0^\circ \text{ and } \sin 30^\circ $

i.e $$ \sin0^\circ < \sin22^\circ < \sin30^\circ $$


We know, $ \ \sin0^\circ = 0 \text{ and } \sin30^\circ = \frac1 2$
Taking average of: $\ \sin0^\circ \text{ & } \sin30^\circ $ $$\implies \sin22^\circ \approx \frac{ \sin0^\circ + \sin30^\circ}{2} $$ $$\implies \sin22^\circ \approx \frac{0+ 0.5}{2} = \frac 1 4 $$


$\therefore 215 \times \cfrac 1 4 = 53.75 \text{ ...(i)}$

[ I have no reason why did this step and onwards, but I guess I was just experimenting with math]


And $ 215 \times \cfrac 1 2 = 107.5 \text{ ...(ii)} \ \ \ \ $ [ basically, $ \sin30 $]


Taking the average of eq (i) and (ii), i.e $$ \cfrac{53.75+107.5}{2} = 80.625 \approx 81 $$
Which almost matches with the calculator answer $80.5404$


Can anyone please explain how come my answer was so close, what was I doing and whats happening?

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I think the answer is that

$$\sin(22^\circ)\approx0.3746, $$

which you're approximating with the average of the quantities

$$ A=\sin(30^\circ)=\frac{1}{2} $$

and

$$ B = \frac{\sin(0^\circ)+\sin(30^\circ)}{2}=\frac{1}{4}. $$

We have that

$$ \frac{A+B}{2}=\frac{3}{8}=0.375, $$

which is close to $0.3746\approx\sin(22^\circ)$.