In the following article: https://link.springer.com/content/pdf/10.1023%2FA%3A1018054314350.pdf
below equation (4.1) there is a statement that: $$EZ^2 \geq (EZ)^2$$, where $Z$ is a random variable.
I am not sure where does it come from and whether is true. How to prove that inequality?
$0\leq E(Z-EZ)^2 = E(Z^2-2ZEZ+(EZ)^2)=EZ^2-2(EZ)^2+(EZ)^2=EZ^2-(EZ)^2$