What is the asymptotic order of $\sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k}^2$? That is, find $g(n)$ such that $$\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac{\sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k}^2}{g(n)}=1$$
We can expand the binomial coefficient and use Stirling's approximation but I can not determine g(n).
This is a comment regarding the comment of Probability student:
According to Wolfy,
$\sum_{k=0}^n({n \choose k}{n+1\choose k}) = \dfrac{2^{2n+1}(n + 1/2)!}{\sqrt{π} (n + 1)!} $
$\sum_{k=0}^n({n \choose k}{n+2\choose k}) = \dfrac{2^{2n + 2} (n + 1) (n + 1/2)!}{\sqrt{π} (n + 2)!} $
Looks like it might be possible to get a closed form for $\sum_{k=0}^n({n \choose k}{n+m\choose k})$.
And Wolfy says that $\sum_{k=0}^n({n \choose k}{n+m\choose k}) =\dfrac{(m + 2 n)!}{n! (m + n)!} $.