I am interested in a more involved version of the following problem:
Suppose we flip a series of independent fair coins. For every head we add $1$ to the total. For every tails we add $0$ to the total. When the total reaches $10$ we stop flipping. With what probability do we flip the coin $20$ or more times?
In reality I only need an estimate for the chance we flip $20$ times. $20$ is an arbitrary number here, as I would like a bound that applies to any $N$ and the bound should shrink as $N \to \infty$. If possible I'd like the bound to be in terms of the variance of the variables.
I know how to use concentration results to get facts like the following: If I flip $100$ coins $X_1,\ldots, X_{100}$ then for $S =X_1 + \ldots + X_{100}$ Hoeffding's inequality says
$$P (S < 10) = P (S -50 < -40) = P (S -\mathbb E[S] < -40)$$ $$ \le \exp \left( - \frac{2 \cdot 40^2}{100}\right)= \exp \left( - \frac{3200}{100}\right) = e^{-32}.$$
So the probability of getting less than $10$ in $100$ coins is pretty darn small.
From this we can imagine it's very unlikely we'll flip the coin $100$ times in our original problem.
I can't see how to formalise this however, since we cannot easily define variables to capture the $n$th flip since that flip might not exist.
Could anyone give some advice or references on how to approach this type of problem?
What you've described is the negative binomial distribution. We say $X$ has a negative binomial distribution $X \sim NB(r, p)$ if $X$ is the number of independent bernoulli trials of parameter $p$ until we get $r$ 'successes'. So in your example, if $X$ is the number of trials until we get 10 heads, $X$ will have $NB(10, 1/2)$ distribution.
To calculate its probability distribution, let's calculate the probability it takes $k$ trials to reach $10$ heads (note $k$ must be larger or equal than $10$ otherwise we can never get $10$ heads). In $k$ trials we need $10$ heads, so this means on the $k$th trial we flip heads. Then on the previous $k-1$ trials we need $9$ heads. The probability we flip $9$ heads in $k-1$ trials is just a binomial distribution, with probability $${{k-1}\choose 9}(1/2)^9(1-1/2)^{k-1-9}={{k-1}\choose 9}(1/2)^{k-1}$$ Then we need to multiply this by the probability the $k$th flip is a head, so the overall probability is $${{k-1}\choose 9}(1/2)^{k}$$