Let $X$ be a random variable, such that $X \sim Uniform(1,N)$. That is, $X$ can take values $1,2,3,...,N$, all with equal probability. Then let $Y$ be a random variable, such that $Y \sim Uniform(1,X)$. That is, $Y$ can take values $1,2,3,...,X$. What, then, is the conditional distribution of $X$ given $Y=1,2,3,...$?
I was thinking the following: Say $Y=1$. Then, there are $N$ possible values that $X$ could take where $1$ is in the probability space of $Y$. If $Y=2$, there are $N-1$ possible values that $X$ could take, as $X=1$ does not include this potential for $Y$. It is then possible to abstract this out to reach the following equation:
$P(X=x|Y=y) = \begin{cases}\frac{1}{N+1-y} & \text{if } 1 \leq x \leq y \leq N \\ 0 & \text{otherwise}\end{cases}$
I think I've come to the conclusion that this equation is flawed, but for the life of me I can't figure it out. Any advice would be helpful.
Use Bayes' Rule: $$\mathsf P(X=x\mid Y=y) = \dfrac{\mathsf P(Y=y\mid X=x)\mathsf P(X=x)}{\sum_{k=y}^N\mathsf P(Y=y\mid X=k)\mathsf P(X=k)}= \dfrac{1/x}{\sum_{k=y}^N 1/k}\mathbf 1_{1\leq y\leq x\leq N}$$