The question is to evaluate
$ \int_{-1}^{1} \frac {dx}{x+1+2i} $
My friend suggested
$ \int_{-1}^{1} \frac {dx}{x+1+2i} $
$= \int_{-1}^{1} \frac {d(1+x+2i)}{x+1+2i} $
$ =\big[\ln (1+x+2i)\big]_{-1}^1 \quad (*)$
$=\ln \big( \frac{2+2i}{2i} \big)$
$=\ln \big(\frac{1+i}i\big)$
$=\ln (1-i)$
$=\frac 12 \ln2-i\frac{\pi}4$
which is actually the correct answer !
I raised objection in the step $(*)$ saying
" The anti-derivative of $\frac 1z$ is not $\ln (z)$ since if this was the case the integral of $\frac 1z$ over any closed curve containing zero would have been zero which is contrary ."
Instead I suggested to multiply the numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the denominator and separately integrate the real and imaginary parts ( which gives same answer.)
I don't think I had convinced him (He is from Applied Maths background) , but I want to know if I am correct on my side. If not, then what is the correct explanation.
Thanks for the time !
This integration is still one dimensional where constants are non-real. So the ideas of contour and integration over $z(x+iy)$ is not meant here. So, both the approach and the answer are right.