Am I right to believe that a function is injective, if some elements of the first set are mapped to some elements of the second set?
It is also possible to 4 elements of the first set, are mapped to the same element of a second set?
Is this correct?
A simple answer is much appreciate, already confused enough :)
THANK YOU
An injective function (a.k.a one-to-one function) is a function for which every element of the range of the function corresponds to exactly one element of the domain.
What this means is that it never maps distinct elements of its domain to the same element of its codomain.