The probability of the intersection of two event is:
$P(A \cap B) = P(A)P(B)$
If the two events are the same, i.e
$P(A \cap A) = P(A)P(A) = P(A)^2$
However, the logic tells us that the probability of an event intersecting itself is 1, since it is contained within itself.
So the probability must be $1$ or $P(A)^2$
You only have that:
$P(A \cap B)=P(A)\cdot P(B)$
if $A$ and $B$ are independent events ... but $A$ and $A$ are clearly not.
However, what is always true is that
$P(A \cap B) = P(A) \cdot P(B|A)$
Thus, you have that:
$P(A\cap A)=P(A) \cdot P(A|A)$
But, obviously we have that $P(A|A)=1$: the probability that $A$ happens given that $A$ happens is $1$
Hence:
$P(A \cap A) = P(A) \cdot P(A|A)= P(A) \cdot 1 = P(A)$
Of course, this make total sense, since set-theoretically, we immediately have that $A \cap A=A$, and thus we could have immediately said that $P(A \cap A) =P(A)$. But it is nice to confirm that it works out using the general formula as well. Sanity check! :)