What is the negation of ((∃x)(p(x)⇒~q(y)) ∧ ((∃x)(p(x) ∧ q(y)))

Question

I'm really confused over this question. This is what I did, but I know is not correct.

((∀x)(p(x) ∧ q(y)) v ((∀x)(p(x) v q(y)))

Answer 1

The negation of this statement would be; first put the negation in front of the statement:

$$\lnot (\exists x(p \rightarrow \lnot q) \land \exists x(p \land q))$$

The negation does makes $\lnot \exists = \forall$ and the $\lnot$ follows (distributes through/ moves to the right) through because of DeMorgan’s Laws:

$$ \forall x \lnot((p \rightarrow \lnot q) \land \exists x(p \land q))$$

$$\forall x(p \land q) \lor \forall x(\lnot p \lor \lnot q)$$

Above is because $p \rightarrow q \equiv \lnot p \lor q$ and $\lnot \land = \lor$.