I am struggling with the following question:
How many analytic functions $f:D\rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ are there that fulfill >$f(\frac{1}{n\cdot\pi})=1,\ n\in\mathbb{N}$ if $D$ is: \begin{align*} a)\quad&D=\{z\in\mathbb{C}:|z-1|<1\}\\ b)\quad&D=\{z\in\mathbb{C}:|z-\frac{1}{2}|<1\} \end{align*} I know that $f(z)=cos\left(\frac{2}{z}\right)$ is a solution, but I don't know >how you can prove whether or not there are others. Furthermore, I don't see how >the number of analytic functions would differ over the two domains.
Thanks in advance for any help!
I have gotten the hint to use the identity theorem. As Daniel Fischer pointed out, $\lim_{z\rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{n\pi}=0$, so the sequence has an accumulation point in $z=0$, which is encompassed in the second domain, but not in the first domain.
I am still uncertain what the consequences of this are. Does this mean that in the first domain there are infinite functions, because of the reasons Accumulation pointed out, while in the second domain there is only one, because it has an accumulation point?
It seems to me that:
f(x) = 1 is a solution
f(2m/z) is a solution for any integer m (note that m=0 give f(x) = 1)
if f(x) is a solution, then so is f(x)^m for any integer m
if f(x) and g(x) are solutions, then f(x)g(x) and af(x)+(1-a)g(x) are solutions for any a.