So I had a question on a test which I can't stop thinking about.
The question is: say that there are three companies $(A,B,C)$ that are independent of each other. The probability of company $B$ going bankrupt is $0.20$. The probability of both $A$ and $C$ going bankrupt is $0.07$, and the probability of $B$ and $C$ going bankrupt is $0.08$. If we know that at least two of the companies have gone bankrupt, what is the probability of all three of them having gone bankrupt?
$$P(B) = 0.2$$ $$P(A\cap C) = 0.07$$ $$P(B\cap C) = 0.08$$
Isn't this just $P(\textrm{all three bankrupt}\; |\; \textrm{at least two of the companies having gone bankrupt})$?
And if we use the rule $P(A\;|\;B) = P(A)$ for independent events (if we can?), shouldn't the answer to this question just be $P(\textrm{All three bankrupt})$ Which would just be $P(A) \cdot P(B) \cdot P(C)$?
Is there something I've done wrong? This was a question on an exam for a statistics basic course at UNI.
Just confused if this is really the correct answer or if its supposed to be way harder?
But the event that all three have gone bankrupt is not independent of the event that at least two have gone bankrupt.
$$P(\text{all three bankrupt}|\text{at least two bankrupt})\\= \frac{P(\text{all three bankrupt})}{P(\text{at least two bankrupt})}\\= \frac{P(A\cap B\cap C)}{P(A\cap B)+P(B\cap C)+P(C\cap A)-2P(A\cap B\cap C)}\\= \frac{0.014}{0.035+0.08+0.07-2(0.014)}\\=8.92\%$$