When I try to think it through I get $$ \frac{6 \choose 3 } { 6^6} = \frac{5}{11~664} $$ because $6^6$ is every possibility and the number of ways you can get 3 five's is $6 \choose 3$ which is $20$
If this is wrong why?
In contrast when I use the binomial distribution and I do $$ {6 \choose 3} (1/6)^3 (5/6)^3 = 0.05358. $$ What am I misinterpreting in the question? I'm tempted to lean to my binomial distribution one being wrong because doesn't binomial imply independent trials one after another and doesn't the fact that all the die I'm throwing all the die at once deny that notion?
You should consider the remaining choices in the first attempt.
There are each $5^3$ choices for the remaining non-$6$ values. Multiplying the answer you got in first attempt with $5^3$ yields the correct answer, which is your answer in the second attempt.