The Two Child Problem states
In a family with two children, what are the chances, if at least one of the children is a girl, that both children are girls?
It is well attested that the answer is 1 in 3. You can view the other question for an explanation why.
I thought up this solution to the same problem, but since the answer is not the same, there must be some part of my reasoning that is unsound, but I can't quite figure out where the problem is. This is my reasoning:
- If it is given that the older child is a girl, the probability that the younger child is also a girl, and thus that both children are girls, is 1 in 2.
- Similarly, if it is given that the younger child is a girl, the probability that the older child is also a girl, and thus that both children are girls, is also 1 in 2.
- If we know that one of the children is a girl, then it can easily be concluded that either the younger child or the older child is a girl.
- Either way, the probability is still 1 in 2.
Where have I gone wrong?
You play a lottery. One of the numbers 1,2,3 will be chosen uniformly at random, and you win if 1 is chosen. You have probability 1/3 of winning, but this argument allows you to conclude it's 1/2:
or:
You've got a five-sided dice with numbers 1,2,3,4,5. The probability of getting odd number is 3/5, but with this argument you can get wrong result - 2/3:
The error in both examples is that the cases are not disjoint. To reason about probability based on conditional probabilities, you're implicitly using law of total probability which requires that the space is split into disjoint sets.
The first example is exactly the same as boy-girl situation, where 1=GG, 2=BG, 3=GB. More dramatically, you could do the lottery with numbers 1-100 (only 1% chance of winning) and the argument would give you 50% chance of winning.