As we know, $\lim_{x \to 0} J_m(x)=0$ where $m\geq 1$ and $\lim_{x \to 0} Y_m(x)=\infty$ then what would be $\lim_{x \to 0}J_m(x)Y_m(x)$. Matlab shows the product is finite and $< 1$. What should I consider logically?
Since
$0\times \infty=0$
$0\times \infty=\frac{\infty}{\infty}=$ Undefined