I am wondering if the independence of two random variables $X,Y$ can be stated as follows:
The joint distribution of $X$ and $Y$ is: $P(\omega\in\Omega: X(\omega)=x, Y(\omega)=y)$. Hence, the joint probability is calculating the probability of the set $\omega \in \Omega$ under the "constraint" that $\omega$, when "plugged into" $X(\omega),Y(\omega)$ will simulataneously, cause $X(\omega)=x$ and $Y(\omega) = y$.
Then, if the set of $\omega\in\Omega$ that cause $X(\omega)$ to be equal to $x$ is disjoint from the set of $\omega'\in\Omega$ that cause $Y(\omega') = y$, then it seems I can separate them into two different sets and so I can factor the probabilities apart, i.e.:
$$ P(\omega\in\Omega: X(\omega)=x, Y(\omega)=y) = P(\omega\in\Omega: X(\omega)=x)P(\omega'\in\Omega: Y(\omega)=y) $$
Is this an accurate portrayal of what is going on? Thanks.
No, it's completely wrong.
First of all, not all random variables are discrete. For a continuous random variable, $P(X = x) = 0$ for all $x$.
Second, except for trivial cases, those sets are not disjoint. If they were disjoint, you'd have $P(X=x, Y=y) = 0$, not $P(X=x) P(Y=y)$.