what is wrong with this argument about a random walk with absorbing barrier?

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A 1-D random walk starting at step $0$ has an absorbing barrier at step $s=3$.

I want to calculate the expected number of steps, starting from $0$, to get to $s=3$

The transition probabilities are:

$ T = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 & 0 & 0\\ 1/3 & 0 & 2/3 & 0 \\ 0 & 2/3 & 0 & 1/3 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} $

The first assumption, is that the expected number of steps to get from $0$ to $3$ is:

$E_{03} = E_{01} + E_{12} + E_{23}$

where $E_{ij}$ is the expected steps to get from $i$ to $j$

Now, we have

  1. $E_{01} = 1$ as one transitions from $0$ to $1$ with $p=1$

  2. $E_{12} = \frac{2}{3}\cdot 1 + \frac{1}{3}E_{02}$. This means one takes one step forward with $p=\frac{2}{3}$ or a step back with $p=\frac{1}{3}$

  3. $E_{02} = E_{01}+E_{12}$ Therefore we can plug this is in into the previous equation to solve for $E_{12} = \frac{3}{2}$

  4. $E_{23} = \frac{1}{3}\cdot 1 + \frac{2}{3}E_{13} = \frac{1}{3}\cdot 1 + \frac{2}{3}[E_{12} + E_{23}] $, which one can solve and gives $E_{23}=4$

Therefore, $E_{03} = 1+ \frac{3}{2} + 4 = \frac{13}{2}$

However, this result is wrong, and I'm not sure where the faulty reasoning is here.

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Just realized what the issue is. I'll paste it here in case it helps.

The right equation for 2 above is:

$E_{12} = \frac{2}{3} \cdot 1 + \frac{1}{3}(E_{02} + \bf{1})$

Since one needs to count the step taken from $1$ to $0$.

Similarly, equation 4 should be

$E_{23} = \frac{1}{3} \cdot 1 + \frac{2}{3}(E_{12} + E_{23} + \bf{1})$