Which of the following relations $f: \mathbb{Q} \rightarrow \mathbb{Q}$ define a mapping? In each case, supply a reason why $f$ is or is not a mapping. Also p and q are integers and q cannot equal zero.
(a) $f(p/q) = \frac{p+1}{p-2}$
I don't believe this is a mappong because 2 in the domain does not map to anything?
(b) $f(p/q) = \frac{3p}{3q}$
(c) $f(p/q) = \frac{p+q}{q^2}$
(d) $f(p/q) = \frac{3p^2}{7q^2} - \frac{p}{q}$
The rest of these three functions seems like mappings to me because all elements of the domain map to a unique element in the range. Is this an appropriate answer?
You have to check that different representations of a rational $p/q$ map to the same value.
(a) is not a mapping since $f(1/2)= -2$, but $f(4/8) = 5/2$.
(b) is the identity mapping $f(x) = x$.
(c) is not a mapping since $f(1/2) = 3/4$, but $f(2/4) = 3/8$.
(d) is is the mapping $f(x) = \frac{3}{7}x^2 - x$