I chanced upon this problem:
$\textbf{Show that} \hspace{0.2cm}\frac{(2n)!}{n!} = 2^n(1 \times 3 \times 5 \times ... \times (2n - 1)).$
I tried the following, and realised I was wrong! :
$\frac{(2n)!}{n!} = \frac{2n(2n-1)(2n-2)(2n-3)\times ... \times 1}{n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\times ... \times 1}$
$= \frac{2(2n-1)(2n-2)(2n-3)\times ... \times 1}{(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)\times ... \times 1}$
$= 2(2n-1)(2n-3)(2n-5)\times ... \times 1$
$= 2(1 \times 3 t\times 5 \times ... \times (2n-1))$
Where am I going wrong?
Thanks in advance.
You can write it so: $$\binom{2n}{n}n!$$ By your way we obtain: $$\frac{(2n)1}{n!}=\frac{2n(2n-1)(2n-2)(2n-3)(2n-4)...1}{n(n-1)(n-2)...1}=$$ $$=2(2n-1)2(2n-3)2(2n-5)...=2^n(2n-1)(2n-3)...1=2^{n}(2n-1)!!$$