Let $f: A \to B$ And $g: B \to C$
$(gof)(x)$ is written as $g(f(x)$, does this mean that it's domain is $f(x)$ , and if it's true then how is it different from the function g whose domain and codomain are the same?
Let $f: A \to B$ And $g: B \to C$
$(gof)(x)$ is written as $g(f(x)$, does this mean that it's domain is $f(x)$ , and if it's true then how is it different from the function g whose domain and codomain are the same?
Let $f:A \rightarrow B$ and $g:B \rightarrow C$
Lets walk through $g \circ f = g(f)$ step by step. We start in the parentheses, so the composite function begins with the domain of $f$, which is $A$. $f$ maps elements in $A$ to $B$. Then, $g$ takes over and maps elements in $B$ to $C$. So, $g \circ f = g(f)$ maps from $A$ to $C$.