We have two group of people (one of $n$ people, the other of $m$ people) that go through the same entertainment experience (think about a day at the amusement park or something like that).
One group gets a special treatment over the other group at some moment during the day (a free drink for example). At the end of the day, each participant gives a satisfaction grade (an integer) $X_1, \cdots, X_n, Y_1, \cdots, Y_m$ that ranges from $0$ to $5$.
We would like to know if the special treatment affects the overall satisfaction of the experience.
I guess that we have to test if the means of the satisfaction of the two groups are equal ? What test should be used ?

Since the options are integers, this is a likert scale so the data is ordinal. You can use a Chi-Square Test for Independence to test the hypotheses
$$H_0: p_{i0}= p_{0j} \text{ for all cells } (i,j)$$
$$H_a:\exists(i,j) \text{ such that } p_{i0} \neq p_{0j}$$
or more simply
$$H_0: \text{group and satisfaction level are independent}$$
$$H_a: \text{group and satisfaction level are associated}$$
We have
$$p_{i0}=\frac{n_{i0}}{n}, p_{0j}=\frac{n_{0j}}{n}$$
The assumption is that all of the expected cell counts $\geq 5$.
We have
$$X^2=∑_{all cells}\frac{(n_{ij}-E_{ij})^2}{E_{ij}}$$
where
$$E_{ij}=\frac{(n_{i0} n_{0j})}{n}$$
and
$$X^2\sim\chi_{(r-1)(c-1)}^2$$
Using Bruce's fake dataset, the test can be ran in R using:
which returns
so we have very strong evidence that the two groups having differing satisfaction levels.