I have noticed that in some places on the web (such as here and on the Encyclopedia of Math), De Moivre's familiar theorem,
$$z^n=\big(\rho(\cos\phi+i \sin\phi)\big)^n=\rho^n(\cos n\phi + i \sin n\phi)$$
is expressed in terms that make it easier to compute the roots of a complex number,
$$z^\frac{1}{n}=\big(\rho(\cos\phi+i \sin\phi)\big)^\frac{1}{n}=\rho^\frac{1}{n}\left(\cos\frac{\phi+2\pi k}{n} + i \sin \frac{\phi+2\pi k}{n}\right), \\ k=0,1,\ldots n-1$$
I was wondering, what is a simple way to derive the second version from the first? I know that adding a multiple of $2\pi$ to angle does not change its $\sin$ or $\cos$, but I am not sure how to use that knowledge to derive the second version.
EDIT:
I don't mean to be a snob, but it would be better for me (and any poor sap who stumbles upon this question in the years to come) if the amount of extra mathemetical information in answers was kept to a minimum.
I will upvote any answers that are technically correct, but I won't accept the answer if it seems to require more math knowledge than the average high-schooler would be comfortable with.
The reason the angles have an offset of $2\pi k$ is because in the complex world, operations like root-taking are multivalued - because exponentiation of $a^b$ is defined as $\exp(\ln(a)\cdot b)$, and the complex log is multivalued.
Now here we have to assume that $n$ is a real number, and of course $\phi$ is real as well, as otherwise the property $(\rho(\cos\phi+i\sin\phi))^{1/n}=\rho^{1/n}\cdot(\cos\phi+i\sin\phi)^{1/n}$ does not hold. With those assumptions in mind, one could guess the inverse of De Moivre's formula, which was originally developed for integers, but by Euler's formula it holds for any real number $n$. That is to say, if $(\cos\phi+i\sin\phi)^n=\cos n\phi+i\sin n\phi$, then surely $(\cos\phi+i\sin\phi)^{1/n}=\cos\frac{\phi}{n}+i\sin\frac{\phi}{n}$. There is some technical care needed before you turn this intuition into rigour:
To see why the $2\pi k$ appears where it does, consider the cosine + sine as $\exp(i\phi)$. Then:
$$\exp(i\phi)^{1/n}=\exp\left(\ln(\exp(i\phi))\cdot\frac{1}{n}\right)$$
By the definition I made at the start, and
$$\begin{align}\exp\left(\ln(\exp(i\phi))\cdot\frac{1}{n}\right)&=\exp\left((i\phi+2\pi ik)\cdot\frac{1}{n}\right)\\&=\exp\left(i(\phi+2\pi k)\cdot\frac{1}{n}\right)\\&=\cos\left(\frac{\phi+2\pi k}{n}\right)+i\sin\left(\frac{\phi+2\pi k}{n}\right)\end{align}$$
As you see in your formulae.