It's clear that $X \times Y$, the Cartesian product of two sets, satisfies the universal property of the product of $X$ and $Y$ in the category $\mathsf{Set}$ of sets. It is possible to show that $Y \times X$ satisfies the same property, so that it is "the" product of $X$ and $Y$ as much as $X \times Y$ is. Moreover, the two are canonically isomorphic, that is, there exists a unique isomorphism between them: this is a consequence of the universality of the product.
My question then is: are there other objects of $\mathsf{Set}$ which are products of $X$ and $Y$?
Considering just equinumerous sets shouldn't work in principle, because they are isomorphic to $X \times Y$ but not uniquely so. Then I don't have a lot of other ideas... I know that $\prod_{i \in I} X^I \cong X^I$, but I can't generalize this to the case where $X \neq Y$.
Given sets $X$ and $Y$, any set $P$ of cardinality $|X| \cdot |Y|$ can serve as a product of $X$ and $Y$, provided you pick appropriate projections $X \xleftarrow{p_1} P \xrightarrow{p_2} Y$. Remember an object of a category alone is not a product, rather, it is the object together with the projection maps.
Explicitly, let $X \xleftarrow{\pi_1} X \times Y \xrightarrow{\pi_2} Y$ be the usual cartesian product and projection functions. Since $|X \times Y| = |P| = |X| \cdot |Y|$, there is a bijection $f : P \to X \times Y$. Now define $p_1 = \pi_1 \circ f$ and $p_2 = \pi_2 \circ f$. You can verify that $(P,p_1,p_2)$ satisfy the appropriate universal property.