A Dedekind-finite ring is a ring in which $ab=1$ implies $ba=1$.
It seems natural to look for a connection to Dedekind-finite sets, however for such a set any injective endomorphism is surjective, while for a Dedekind-finite ring it goes vice versa, namely, any surjective endomorphism is injective (In other words, such a ring is Hopfian).
So, what is the motivation behind this name (for rings)?
Thanks.
It would seem to me that you should simply apply your own observation concerning Dedekind-finite sets and their definition to the left/right homotheties involved: given $ab=1$, the right homothety defined by $b$, i.e. $\vartheta_b:R\rightarrow R$, $r\mapsto rb$, viewed as a homomorphism of abelian groups, say, is clearly surjective (one has $\vartheta_b\circ\vartheta_a=\text{id}_R$); iff also $ba=1$, then $\vartheta_a\circ\vartheta_b=\text{id}_R$, making $\vartheta_b$ injective, too (note also that the one-sided multiplicative inverses of an element, when they exist, must coincide due to associativity). The endomorphism rings of finite-dimensional vector spaces over (skew) fields are, of course, standard examples of Dedekind-finite rings, further justifying (possibly) the intuitive feel that such vector spaces (and hence their endomorphism rings) are "small" in a sense. Kind regards, Stephan F. Kroneck.