Let $K$ be a number field and let $\pi$ be an element in $K$. Assume that $\pi$ is not contained in a subfield of $K$.
Consider the curve $y^2 = x^{2g+1}+\pi$. This defines (after homogenization and normalization) a hyperelliptic curve of genus $g$ over $K$.
Why is this curve not defined over a smaller field $k\subset K$?
That is, why isn't there some transformation of the equation $y^2 = x^{2g+1}+\pi$ such that the coefficients lie in a smaller field?
I might be wrong about this though. That is, maybe these curves ARE defined over a smaller field. I would just like to know how to prove the correct statement rigorously.
Let $p$ be a prime not dividing the discriminant of $K$. Then it would be acceptable to take $\pi = p$, and of course the curve $y^2 = x^{2g+1} + p$ is defined over $\mathbb{Q}$.
(So perhaps you should give a more precise set of hypotheses. There seems to be an interesting question lurking in here...)