The Wikipedia article and the paper it refers to have a blurb on it, but I haven't be able to find an explanation for this. More specifically, why does multiplying the transpose of the original matrix and the inverse of its square equal the inverse of the original matrix?
2026-03-25 14:27:19.1774448839
Why can the Cholesky decomposition be used to invert non-Hermitian matrices?
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