When we are using observed data $(x_1,y_1)\ldots(x_m,y_m)$ for the exponential model $$y(x)=a_1\mathrm{e}^{a_2x}~(a_1>0),$$ it is natural to think about the linearized model $$\ln y=\ln a_1+a_2x.$$
It is not hard to understand this approach, but my question is, how can we prove rigorously that we are obtaining the same results? I.e., the following two optimization problems for $a_1$ and $a_2$ $$\text{minimize}\sum_{k=1}^m(a_1\mathrm{e}^{a_2 x_k}-y_k)^2$$ and $$\text{minimize}\sum_{k=1}^m(\ln a_1+a_2 x_k-\ln y_k)^2$$ yield the same $a_1$, $a_2$?
My attempts using multivariate calculus failed, and I can only say that since the problems are "equivalent" with unique solution, the answer should be unique. Is that acceptable?
You will not obtain the same results at all beacause the residues are totally different. In the first case, they are $$r_i=\hat y_i-y_i$$ while in the second case, they are $$r_i=\log(\hat y_i)-\log( y_i)$$
If you look at my answer to this question, I explain that the first case corresponds to the usual minimization of the sum of the squares of absolute errors while the second corresponds more or less to the minimization of the sum of the squares of relative errors which is totally different.