Why can you do this substitution?

60 Views Asked by At

The stationary states of a linear potential well are given by the solutions of the following differential equation:

$$\dfrac {\partial^2 f} {\partial x^2} - 2(x - c)f(x) =0$$

On Sakurai's Modern Quantum Mechanics, he claims the substitution $z = 2^{1/3}(x-c)$ transforms this into:

$$\dfrac {\partial^2 f} {\partial z^2} - zf(z) =0$$

Wolfram alpha confirms this solution, but that is not at all evident to me. I would write:

$$\dfrac {\partial^2 f(x)} {\partial z^2} - 2^{1/3}zf(x^2) =0, $$ where $x$ is evaluated at $x = 2^{-1/3}z-c$. I would like to write the equation in the form prescribed by Sakurai, since then the solution is given by Airy's function. What did he do to transform the equation?

1

There are 1 best solutions below

6
On BEST ANSWER

By the chain rule, $$\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial f}{\partial z}\frac{\partial z}{\partial x} = 2^{1/3}\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}$$ $$\frac{\partial^{2}f}{\partial x^{2}} = \frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left[\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\right] = \frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left[2^{1/3}\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}\right] = \frac{\partial z}{\partial x}\frac{\partial}{\partial z}\left[2^{1/3}\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}\right] = 4^{1/3}\frac{\partial^{2} f}{\partial z^{2}}$$ This turns $$\frac{\partial^{2} f}{\partial x^{2}} - 2(x-c)f = 0$$ Into $$4^{1/3}\frac{\partial^{2} f}{\partial z^{2}} - 4^{1/3}zf = 0$$ And dividing by $4^{1/3}$ gives $$\frac{\partial^{2} f}{\partial z^{2}} - zf = 0$$