Imagine you want to motivate for an audience the definition of an adjunction in terms of unit and counit. So you can say: Often two functors $\mathcal{C} \begin{array}{c} \stackrel{\large F}{\rightarrow} \\ \stackrel{\leftarrow}{G}\end{array} \mathcal{D}$ are not really inverse, up to isomorphism, but still, the compositions $F \circ G$ and $G \circ F$ are somehow "connected" to the identity functors. So we have natural transformations $$\eta : \mathrm{id}_{\mathcal{C}} \to G \circ F,$$ $$\varepsilon : F \circ G \to \mathrm{id}_{\mathcal{D}},$$ which should be compatible in a suitable way. Then someone says:
"Wait, why not taking $\varepsilon : \mathrm{id}_{\mathcal{D}} \to F \circ G$ instead? What's wrong with that?"
What would you answer?
Just to be clear: I understand the concept of an adjunction and know that $\varepsilon$ has to go from $F \circ G$ to $\mathrm{id}_{\mathcal{D}}$, but I am not sure how to explain this to a novice without going into the details of the notion of an adjunction, for example the triangle identities or the alternative hom-set-definition, which by the way I would like to exclude from the discussion here. A good answer should be intuitive.
Notice that it is not true that we cannot state any compatibility conditions between two natural transformations $\eta : \mathrm{id}_{\mathcal{C}} \to G \circ F$ and $\varepsilon : \mathrm{id}_{\mathcal{D}} \to F \circ G$. An obvious candidate would be $$F \circ \eta = \varepsilon \circ F : F \to F \circ G \circ F$$ and/or $$\eta \circ G = G \circ \varepsilon : G \to G \circ F \circ G.$$ By the way, does this concept have a name?
Maybe this veers too close to talking about the triangle equations, but I find it suggestive that it's possible to paste the unit and the counit in some way when the counit goes the right way around, whereas if it goes the wrong way around, there's simply no pasting that you can possibly do. With no pasting, there wouldn't be anything you could "do" with the data of an adjunction, except maybe to have it interact with other adjunctions.
Maybe you could make something of the following fact: if a functor is a self-adjoint endofunctor, and you have the counit the wrong way around, then the unit and counit have the same domain and codomain. Maybe that seems a little weird.
Otherwise -- examples?
EDIT From the way the question is worded, it sounds like you want to motivate the adjunction concept as a weakening of the equivalence concept. Perhaps the question "why doesn't $\epsilon$ go the other way?" comes from the fact that when we're talking about equivalences, it often is presented as going the other way. Then it will make sense to point out that in the equivalence case, since the 2-cells are invertible, there really are 2-cells going in both directions, and so we're free to generalize it by choosing whatever direction we please. Then you can motivate the actual choice of directions by saying "wait and see the cool equations that this allows me to impose".