This is the question:
Solve for $x$
$$\arcsin(1-x)-2\arcsin(x) = \frac{\pi}{2}$$
I solved this by these steps:
$\arcsin(1-x) = \frac{\pi}{2} + 2\arcsin(x)$
$\sin$ function on both sides
$1-x=\sin(\frac{\pi}{2} + 2\arcsin(x))$
$\implies 1-x = \cos(2\arcsin(x))$
$1-x = 1-2\sin^{2}(\arcsin(x))$
$\implies 1-x=1-2x^{2}$
Solving this we would get either $x=0$ or $x=1/2$ but when we substitute $1/2$ in the original question, it does not give out the answer of $\frac{\pi}{2}$. Why does this happen?
Note that $\arcsin\left(\frac12\right) = \frac\pi6.$ When you substitute $x=\frac12$ in the equation $\arcsin(1-x) = \frac{\pi}{2} + 2\arcsin(x)$, you get
$$ \arcsin\left(1 - \frac12\right) \stackrel?= \frac\pi2 + 2\arcsin\left(\frac12\right), $$
which simplifies as follows:
\begin{align} \arcsin\left(\frac12\right) &\stackrel?= \frac\pi2 + 2\arcsin\left(\frac12\right),\\ \frac\pi6 &\stackrel?= \frac\pi2 + 2\left(\frac\pi6\right),\\ \frac\pi6 &\stackrel?= \frac56\pi. \end{align}
Clearly the two sides are not equal, but it is also true that
$$ \sin\left(\frac\pi6\right) = \sin\left(\frac56\pi\right). $$
So this spurious solution was introduced when you took the sine of both sides, due to the way the sine function can give one output value for two different input values.