The collection of $n$-categories naturally has the structure of a $(1+n)$-category. For example $\mathbf{Set}$ is a $1$-category and $\mathbf{Cat}$ is a $2$-category. Therefore we would expect the $-1$-categories to form a $0$-category, i.e. a set.
The $-1$-categories are precisely the empty category and the trivial category (these can be seen as the booleans or truth-values, false and true). But there's a functor from the empty category to the trivial category (false implies true). So the $-1$-categories actually form a $1$-category (admitedly a mere partial order) rather than a set as expected.
What's the explanation for this discrepancy in an otherwise straightforward pattern?
Because sets are the $0$-groupoids; they are the $0$-categories in which every morphism is invertible. In a set, if $\hom(x,y)$ is trivial, then $\hom(y,x)$ is trivial as well.
Its posets that are the $0$-categories.
It may be helpful to think of setoids rather than sets, and preorders instead of posets.
There's a finer classification: an $(n,r)$-category is one where:
Sets are the $(0,0)$-categories, and posets are the $(0,1)$-categories. The usual definition of category is of $(1,1)$-categories.