I enjoyed this blog on visualizing Bayes theorem but I have a question on the wording for .
$p(A\mid B) = p(A,B)/p(B)$
In words I understand this to be "probability of A given B"
if we are "given B" why do we need to divide by p(B) ? Surely if I am "given" something then its probability is $1$?
Why do we say it this way?
[Update]
I am seeing that p(B) = 1 (because we are "given" it )
thus p(A,B)/p(B) = p(A,B)
I am looking for the right words to articulate that we still need to divide by p(B) and that it is not 1
If we were saying "given we know the probability of B" instead of "given B" I would not be so confused.
I suspect that you may not get a satisfactory answer to your question since you are bothered by a single word that has several meanings in informal discourse but just one in this mathematical context. That one disagrees with your favorite daily use meaning. But I will try.
The right way to think of "given" here is that "the probability of $A$ given $B$" means "what would the probability of $A$ be if I knew that $B$ had occurred?".
So for example the probability that a coin shows "heads" given that it shows "tails" is $0$. I think that's a reasonable English sentence. It's pretty clearly correct. It also follows from the formula in your question.
Dividing by the probability of $B$ in that formula is the precise way to take into account the hypothesized occurrence of $B$. It tells you what fraction the event ($A$ and $B$) is of the event $B$.