$${{n}\choose{0}}+ {{n}\choose{1}}+{{n}\choose{2}}+\ldots+{{n}\choose{n-1}}+{{n}\choose{n}}=(1+1)^n$$
I don't see why this is true, because (if I'm not mistaken)
\begin{align}&{{n}\choose{0}}+ {{n}\choose{1}}+{{n}\choose{2}}+\ldots+{{n}\choose{n-1}}+{{n}\choose{n}}\\&=1+{{n}\choose{1}}+{{n}\choose{2}}+\ldots+{{n}\choose{n-1}}+1\\ &=2+{{n}\choose{1}}+{{n}\choose{2}}+\ldots+{{n}\choose{n-1}} \end{align}
So my question is why
$$2+{{n}\choose{1}}+{{n}\choose{2}}+\ldots+{{n}\choose{n-1}}=(1+1)^n\;\;\;\;\text{(1)}$$
If anyone requires any context, I am reviewing some set theory, and I came across the proof that the power set of a set $S$ with $n$ elements had $2^{n}$ elements. Just to reiterate, I'm not looking for a proof of the cardinality of the power set. I just want to know, algebraically, why $(1)$ is true.
Thanks.
There is an easy way to prove the formula.
Suppose you want to buy a burger and you have a choice of 6 different condiments for it - mustard, mayonnaise, lettuce, tomatoes, pickles, and cheese. How many ways can you choose a combination of these condiments for your burger?
Of course, you can choose either 6 different condiments, 5 different condiments, 4 different condiments, etc. So the obvious way to solve the problem is:
$\begin{align}{{6}\choose{6}} + {{6}\choose{5}} + {{6}\choose{4}} + {{6}\choose{3}} + {{6}\choose{2}} + {{6}\choose{1}} = \boxed{64}\end{align}$
But there is a better way. Imagine 6 spaces for 6 condiments:
_____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____
For every space, there are $2$ possible outcomes: Yes or No, meaning the condiment was chosen or the condiment was not chosen. With $2$ possible outcomes for each space, there are $2^6 = \boxed{64}$ possible ways.
We know that both ways have foolproof logic and will both give identical answers no matter how many condiments there are. So this means we have proven:
$\begin{align}\sum_{k = 0}^{n} \binom{n}{k} = 2^n\end{align}$