Why is it that $$\int_{1}^\infty \frac{1}{x}dx = \infty,$$ but$$\int_{1}^\infty \frac{1}{x^2}dx = 1,$$ when their graphs are the same shape?
They are basically the same shape. Even if $\frac{1}{x^2}$ approaches zero faster than $\frac{1}{x}$, that should not matter, right?
They may look similar on $[1,\infty)$, but with a change of perspective they look rather different. Let $z=1/x$, or $x=1/z$. Then $dx=-1/z^2$ and the limits of integration become $1\mapsto 1$ and $+\infty\mapsto 0^+$, or just $0$. Then $$ \int_1^{\infty} x^{-2}\,dx = \int _{1}^{0}(-dz) = \int _0^1 \,dz = 1 $$So, under this substitution, the new integrand is a constant and the range of integration is $[0,1]$: this is well-behaved. But the other one looks very different: $$ \int _1^{\infty} x^{-1}\,dx = \int_{1}^{0} z^{-1}(-dz ) = \int _0^1 z^{-1}\,dz $$Post-transformation, the integrand still has a singularity (of course, a priori it could still be improperly integrable, but...) and the FTC shows that the value of the integral is unbounded: $$ =\left. \ln(z)\right|_0^1 = \ln(1)-\ln(0) = -(-\infty)=\infty $$Strictly speaking, I should be taking the lower limit as $a\to 0+$ for some positive $a$, but you get the idea.