Came across this in my maths book.
$$\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{n!}{(n-k)!n^k} = 1$$
Why is it so?
2026-04-06 18:11:03.1775499063
Why does $\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{n!}{(n-k)!n^k}$ equal 1
273 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in CALCULUS
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