So in my maths textbook the questions asks: "What is the probability of rolling at least one 5 in 6 rolls".
So of course the probability of rolling a 5 is 1/6. Supposedly rolling the die 6 times then increases the probability from 1/6 to 1-(5/6)^6.I understand how to calculate it, just not why probability would increase when the first roll doesn't affect the second roll etc. Yes successive rolls means you might have failed the first roll, but upon throwing the second time it's still 1/6 chance of throwing a 5?!? I mean even upon throwing the 1000th time, you would still have a 1/6 chance...
Thanks!

Repeatedly rolling a die does not increase your chance of getting a $5$ in a single roll - it's still $1/6$. But $1-(5/6)^6$ is not the probability of getting a $5$ in a single roll, but the probability of getting at least one $5$ in $6$ rolls. Think of the following two scenarios:
scenario 1.
scenario 2.
Is it more clear now? $1/6$ and $1-(5/6)^6$ are probabilities that correspond to different scenarios.