Example problem from Calc II lecture: $\int \sec^4(x)dx$
Worked out solution from lecture:
$\int \sec^4(x)dx = \int (1+\tan^2(x))(\sec^2(x))dx = \int (1+u^2)du = $
Question: Why when doing the antiderivative does the 1 in $\int (1+u^2)du$ become $u$ rather than $x$.
Based on my current working knowledge of Calculus, the antiderivative of 1 is always $x$. Does substitution have anything to do with this?
Thanks
Look closely. It isn’t $\int (1+u^2)dx$, it’s $\int (1+u^2)du$. The antiderivative of $du$ is of course $u$, not $x$. Does that answer your question?