Using the following definition of $\sin(x)$
$$\sin(x) \stackrel{\text{def}}{=} \frac{1}{2}\left(e^{ix} - e^{-ix}\right)$$
Results in the following integral
$$\begin{align} \int \sin(x)\ dx &= \frac{1}{2}\int\left(e^{ix} - e^{-ix}\right) \ dx \\ &= \frac{1}{2i}\left(e^{ix} + e^{-ix}\right) + C \end{align}$$
But $\int \sin(x)\ dx = -\cos(x) + C \iff \int \sin(x)\ dx = \frac{1}{2}\int\left(e^{ix} + e^{-ix}\right) + C$. Thus the $\frac{1}{i}$ multiplicand is the term here is what is producing the wrong integral.
Is it only possible to integrate $\sin(x)$ and prove $\int \sin(x) = -\cos(x) + C$ via the Taylor Series definition of $\sin(x)$?
$$\sin(x) \stackrel{\text{def}}{=} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)!}x^{2n+1} \ \ \ \ \ \text{(Taylor Series Definition)}$$
You made the usual mistake in mathematics: sloppyness!
Wrong. The formula you wrote evaluates to
$$\frac12(\cos x + i\sin x - (\cos(-x) + i\sin(-x))) = \frac12(\cos x + i\sin x - \cos x + i\sin x) =\frac12 (2i\sin x) = i\sin x \neq \sin x$$
Using the correct formula for $\sin x$ (which is $\frac1{2i}(e^{ix}-e^{-ix}$) will get you:
$$\int \sin x dx = \frac{1}{2i}\int(e^{ix}-e^{-ix})dx =\\ =\frac{1}{2i}\left(\int e^{ix} dx - \int e^{-ix} dx \right)=\\ =\frac{1}{2i}\left(\frac{1}{i}e^{ix} - \frac{1}{-i} e^{-ix}\right)+C=\\ =\frac{1}{2i}\cdot \frac{1}{i}\left(e^{ix} + e^{-ix}\right)+C=\\ =\frac{1}{-2}(\cos x + i\sin x + \cos(-x) + i\sin(-x))+C=\\ =\frac{1}{-2}(\cos x + i\sin x + \cos(x) - i\sin(x))=\\ =\frac{1}{-2}\cdot2\cdot \cos x+C = -\cos x+C$$
Which works out to what you would expect.