I'm studying for a test and in one of the solutions to a problem, Stirling's Approximation is used and allows the equation
$$ \frac{(q+N-1)!} {q! \cdot (N-1)!} $$
to become
$$ \frac{1}{q!} \cdot \frac{N}{N!} \cdot \frac{(q+N)!}{q+N} $$
I don't understand how the last two terms came to be. Is it a factorial identity or is there underlying math that hasn't been shown in the solution. Any help would be great.
$$\require{cancel}n!=\overbrace{1\times2\times3\times\dots\times(n-1)\times n}^n$$
$$\frac{n!}n=\frac{\overbrace{\color{green}{1\times2\times3\times\dots\times(n-1)}\times\color{red}{\cancel n}}^n}{\color{red}{\cancel n}}$$
$$(n-1)!=\overbrace{\color{green}{1\times2\times3\times\dots\times(n-1)}}^{n-1}$$
We also have:
$$\frac{n!}{p!}=\frac{\overbrace{\color{red}{\cancel{1\times2\times3\times\dots\times p}}\times\color{green}{(p+1)\times\dots\times(n-1)\times n}}^n}{\color{red}{\cancel{1\times2\times3\times\dots\times p}}}$$
$$=\color{green}{(p+1)\times\dots\times(n-1)\times n}$$