When analyzing time series, a benefit of log difference, $log(y_t) - log(y_{t-12})$, is that it is symmetric, unlike percentage change, $\frac{y_t-y_{t-12}}{y_{t-12}}$.
My question is —— why is asymmetry an issue? Or how is log difference helpful in ways that percentage change is not when analyzing a time series (more specifically, time series of economic indicators and stock index)?
To start, I looked into this paper but remained confused. https://www.jstor.org/stable/2683905?seq=1
"Avoiding mistakes" is not satisfying as a reason, and why is having an "additive identity" significant?
Thank you!
Let $y_t$ the $t^{\textrm{th}}$ value of the time series. Suppose that $\frac{y_{t+1}}{y_{t}}=c$. Then the relative change is $\frac{y_{t+1}-y_{t}}{y_{t}}=c-1$. Now suppose that $y_t$ is larger than $y_{t+1}$, with $\frac{y_{t+1}}{y_{t}}=\frac1{c}$. Here the time series is decreasing. In this case the relative change of is $\frac1{c}-1$, which is not the negative value of $c-1$.
We keep the assumtion that $\frac{y_{t+1}}{y_{t}}=c$. Then the change in terms of logs is $$\ln\left(\frac{y_{t+1}}{y_{t}}\right)=\ln\left(\frac{c}{1}\right)=\ln{(c)}-\ln{(1)}=\ln(c)$$.
In the case of an decreasing series we have the relation $\frac{y_{t+1}}{y_{t}}=\frac1{c}$. And the change in terms of logs becomes
$$\ln\left(\frac{y_{t+1}}{y_{t}}\right)=\ln\left(\frac{1}{c}\right)=\ln{(1)}-\ln{(c)}=-\ln(c)$$
In the case of logaritmiszed values the changes are symmetric in the sense, that the decreasing change rate is equal to the negative value of the increasing change rate.